PW0-205 Wireless LAN Analysis: Essential Practice Test Questions

Timed PW0-205 Practice Test — Wireless LAN Analysis Question SetPreparing for the PW0-205 Wireless LAN Analysis exam requires focused practice, accurate information, and realistic testing conditions. This article provides a comprehensive, timed practice test experience, plus study strategies, answer explanations, and tips to improve speed and accuracy. Use the timed question set below to simulate real exam conditions and identify areas that need improvement.


How to use this practice test

  • Set a timer for 60 minutes to simulate a realistic exam environment.
  • Work without notes or external resources to train recall and time management.
  • After finishing, check your answers and read explanations. Focus future study on questions you missed or guessed.
  • Retake the test weekly, aiming to reduce errors and improve completion time.

Test format and scoring

  • Total questions: 50
  • Question types: Multiple-choice (single best answer), multiple-response (choose two or more), and scenario-based troubleshooting.
  • Passing target for practice: 85% (⁄50) to ensure readiness for various exam difficulties.
  • Time allocation guide: ~1 minute per question, with an extra 10 minutes reserved for harder scenario questions.

Core topics covered

  • Radio frequency fundamentals and spectrum analysis
  • WLAN architecture and components (APs, controllers, sensors)
  • Security protocols and encryption (WPA2/WPA3, 802.1X)
  • RF troubleshooting and mitigation (co-channel interference, overlapping channels)
  • Site surveys and design constraints (coverage, capacity, and roaming)
  • Packet capture and frame analysis (802.11 frames, management/control/data frames)
  • Performance optimization and QoS for voice/video
  • Regulatory considerations and power/channel planning

Timed Practice Questions (50)

  1. Which 802.11 frame type is used to establish and manage association between a client and an access point?
    A. Control frame
    B. Management frame
    C. Data frame
    D. Beacon frame

  2. A spectrum analyzer shows a repeating spike at 2.4 GHz every 1 MHz across the band. This pattern most likely indicates:
    A. Bluetooth interference
    B. Wi‑Fi co-channel overlap
    C. Harmonic from a non‑Wi‑Fi device
    D. Narrowband interferer (e.g., microwave or baby monitor)

  3. Which channel plan minimizes co‑channel interference in a dense 2.4 GHz deployment?
    A. 1, 6, 11
    B. 1, 2, 3, 4
    C. 3, 8, 13
    D. 5, 10

  4. In a packet capture, you notice repeated ARP requests and no ARP replies for a particular client. The most likely cause is:
    A. AP noise floor too high
    B. Client is on different VLAN or subnet
    C. Incorrect PSK configured on the AP
    D. DHCP lease expired

  5. Which of the following best describes RSSI?
    A. Noise level in dBm
    B. Relative signal strength indicator measured in dBm or arbitrary units
    C. Throughput of a wireless link
    D. Encryption strength of the WLAN

  6. A client experiences frequent roaming between two APs at the edge of coverage. Which setting is most likely to improve stability?
    A. Increase DTIM interval
    B. Lower the AP transmit power on the closer AP
    C. Disable RTS/CTS
    D. Change SSID to a unique name per AP

  7. When analyzing a capture, you see multiple duplicate ACKs from a TCP session. This indicates:
    A. Normal operation — no packet loss
    B. Packet loss and likely retransmission at the sender
    C. Client is performing fast roaming
    D. Encryption negotiation failure

  8. Which security mechanism provides per‑packet keys and mutual authentication for enterprise WLANs?
    A. WPA2‑PSK
    B. WPA2‑Enterprise with 802.1X/EAP
    C. WEP
    D. MAC filtering

  9. During an OFDM transmission, which factor primarily determines symbol rate?
    A. Channel width
    B. Number of subcarriers and guard interval
    C. AP CPU processing power
    D. Client battery level

  10. A floor plan survey shows dead spots near thick concrete walls. The best mitigation is:
    A. Increase AP power until coverage appears
    B. Add additional APs or reposition APs to improve coverage
    C. Switch to 2.4 GHz only
    D. Reduce SSID broadcast power

  11. In 5 GHz, Dynamic Frequency Selection (DFS) is required to:
    A. Avoid interference with radar systems and vacate channels when radar is detected
    B. Improve throughput automatically
    C. Extend range of APs
    D. Provide backward compatibility with 2.4 GHz

  12. Which antenna pattern is best for a corridor deployment requiring uniform coverage along a long hallway?
    A. Omnidirectional vertical pattern
    B. Patch (directional) antenna mounted to face down the corridor
    C. High-gain dish pointing upward
    D. Dipole placed parallel to the corridor

  13. You observe high retry rates on an AP serving many clients on a busy channel. First troubleshooting step:
    A. Replace the AP hardware
    B. Check for co‑channel and adjacent‑channel interference with a spectrum analyzer
    C. Disable client roaming
    D. Increase beacon interval

  14. What does “clear channel assessment (CCA)” measure?
    A. The integrity of 802.11 authentication frames
    B. Whether the medium is busy based on energy detection or preamble detection
    C. The number of associated clients
    D. Quality of Service settings

  15. Which 802.11 management frame carries the SSID and supported rates?
    A. Probe Request
    B. Probe Response
    C. Beacon frame
    D. ACK frame

  16. In an enterprise deployment, where should RADIUS servers be placed for scalability and redundancy?
    A. Single server in the main office only
    B. Multiple servers in different data centers with load balancing or failover
    C. On each AP
    D. In the cloud without redundancy

  17. Which tool provides frame‑level details including sequence numbers, frame control fields, and RSN information?
    A. Spectrum analyzer
    B. Packet capture tool (e.g., Wireshark with monitor mode)
    C. Ping utility
    D. SNMP polling

  18. When a client is using WPA3‑SAE, which attack is mitigated compared to WPA2‑PSK?
    A. Man‑in‑the‑middle on encrypted frames
    B. Offline dictionary attacks against the pre‑shared key
    C. MAC spoofing
    D. Channel saturation

  19. What is the expected unit for reporting noise floor in logs?
    A. dBm
    B. Mbps
    C. Percent utilization
    D. dBi

  20. A site survey recommends 25 dBm EIRP for outdoor coverage. What does EIRP represent?
    A. Equivalent isotropically radiated power — combining transmitter power and antenna gain minus losses
    B. Effective internal radio power only
    C. Encryption-independent radio parameter
    D. Estimated interference ratio

  21. Which 802.11 state machine transition occurs when a client sends an association request and the AP responds with an association response?
    A. Authentication → Association
    B. Association → Authentication
    C. Scanning → Authentication
    D. Power Save → Awake

  22. In 802.11ac, using 80 MHz channels increases throughput but also:
    A. Reduces susceptibility to interference
    B. Increases chance of overlapping and adjacent‑channel interference in 5 GHz
    C. Eliminates hidden node problems
    D. Lowers required SNR

  23. During a packet capture you observe a client sending deauthentication frames to the AP. Most likely cause:
    A. AP initiated the deauth due to policy
    B. Client is being forced off by a deauth attack (malicious) or client bug
    C. DHCP server issue
    D. Switch port disabled

  24. What is the purpose of Null Data frames in 802.11?
    A. Carry data with no payload for power management (e.g., indicating awake/asleep)
    B. Acknowledgment of management frames
    C. Encryption handshakes
    D. Frequency calibration

  25. Which timer setting affects how long a roaming client waits before attempting to reassociate after disconnection?
    A. DTIM interval
    B. Reassociation timeout (or roam retry timer)
    C. Beacon interval
    D. Probe delay

  26. If you see a client stuck at 1 Mbps data rate, likely causes include:
    A. Strong signal and low noise
    B. Extremely poor SNR, regulatory forced rate limits, or mismatched capabilities
    C. AP CPU overload
    D. Client driver reporting wrong OS version

  27. Which channel width options exist for 802.11n?
    A. 5, 10, 20 MHz
    B. 20 and 40 MHz
    C. 10, 20, 40, 80 MHz
    D. 20, 40, 80, 160 MHz

  28. For VoWiFi, which QoS mechanism is most important to prioritize voice frames?
    A. WMM (Wireless Multimedia) with AC_VO (voice) priority
    B. Increasing beacon interval
    C. Disabling RTS/CTS
    D. Lowering AP transmit power

  29. In a packet capture, you see RSN information elements in association requests. RSN stands for:
    A. Robust Security Network
    B. Radio Signal Notation
    C. Roaming Support Node
    D. Received Signal Number

  30. Which mitigation helps against co‑channel interference in 5 GHz dense deployments?
    A. Use wider channels everywhere
    B. Implement adaptive channel selection and lower power where appropriate
    C. Disable DFS permanently
    D. Force all clients to 2.4 GHz

  31. A client reports slow throughput but good RSSI and low retry rate. Likely causes:
    A. High latency on the wired network, poor backhaul or client application issues
    B. Physical layer interference only
    C. Encryption problems only
    D. Incorrect SSID broadcast

  32. What does the term “hidden node” describe?
    A. A client that is invisible to the AP due to MAC filtering
    B. Two clients that cannot hear each other but both can hear the AP, causing collisions at the AP
    C. AP in power save mode
    D. A stealth SSID

  33. Which of the following best describes airtime fairness?
    A. Allocating equal phy‑rate to all clients
    B. Scheduling or limiting faster clients from being starved by slower clients, giving fair share of airtime rather than throughput
    C. Prioritizing video over other traffic
    D. Ensuring equal power levels across APs

  34. Which regulatory domain setting affects available 5 GHz channels and max transmit power?
    A. Country/region code in AP configuration (regulatory domain)
    B. SSID name
    C. MAC address ACL
    D. DHCP scope

  35. During a packet capture, you notice many management frames with mismatched BSSID fields. This indicates:
    A. Normal behavior during roaming or multiple SSIDs on same APs
    B. Single AP malfunctioning — impossible to have different BSSIDs
    C. Encryption failure
    D. Firmware bug on client only

  36. What does the term “spectral mask” define for a WLAN transmitter?
    A. Permissible out‑of‑band emissions relative to the carrier, defining how much energy may spill into adjacent channels
    B. The encryption strength of the radio
    C. The max number of clients per AP
    D. Antenna polarization pattern

  37. Which wireless measurement indicates channel utilization as a percentage?
    A. RSSI
    B. Channel busy time or channel utilization metrics reported by APs
    C. PHY rate
    D. SNR

  38. In a mesh deployment, which factor primarily influences path selection between nodes?
    A. Link quality and throughput metrics, hop count, and configured routing protocol (e.g., HWMP)
    B. MAC address ordering
    C. SSID name length
    D. AP uptime only

  39. Which type of antenna polarization mismatch causes signal degradation between AP and client?
    A. Vertical vs horizontal polarization mismatch (cross‑polarization)
    B. Different SSID names
    C. Different encryption types
    D. Different regulatory domains

  40. For frame aggregation (A-MPDU), what effect does increasing aggregation size have?
    A. Reduces overhead and can increase throughput but increases retransmission penalty for lost subframes
    B. Decreases throughput always
    C. Eliminates need for ACKs
    D. Increases channel noise

  41. A spectrum analyzer shows broad continuous energy across the entire 2.4 GHz band. Most likely source:
    A. Microwave oven or wideband interferer
    B. Single narrowband interferer like a cordless phone
    C. Bluetooth low energy only
    D. Proper Wi‑Fi traffic

  42. During a site survey, you record SNR values below 15 dB in key areas. For reliable data rates, target SNR should be at least:
    A. 0–5 dB
    B. 10 dB
    C. 20 dB or higher (varies by modulation)
    D. Negative values

  43. Which management frame can be used by an AP to direct a client to a specific AP during roaming (i.e., 802.11k/v features)?
    A. Disassociation frame
    B. BSS Transition Management Request (802.11v) or Neighbor Report (802.11k)
    C. ACK frame
    D. RTS frame

  44. Which parameter affects time a client spends in power save mode versus active?
    A. DTIM interval and client power save behavior
    B. Channel width
    C. SSID length
    D. Antenna gain

  45. Which tool helps visualize per‑client airtime usage and latency across APs?
    A. Spectrum analyzer
    B. WLAN controller dashboard or network management tool with per‑client metrics
    C. Simple ping only
    D. DHCP server logs

  46. A client cannot complete 4‑way handshake with the AP. Most likely reasons:
    A. Incorrect credentials, mismatched security settings, or network device blocking EAP/RADIUS traffic
    B. AP out of disk space
    C. Client battery low only
    D. Beacon interval too long

  47. What benefit does 802.11ax (Wi‑Fi 6) bring compared to 802.11ac regarding multi‑user efficiency?
    A. OFDMA and improved MU‑MIMO for better spectral efficiency and simultaneous multi‑user transmissions
    B. Removes need for encryption
    C. Only increases maximum power
    D. Downgrades legacy client support

  48. Which approach reduces adjacent channel interference in 2.4 GHz when 40 MHz is used?
    A. Always use 40 MHz in 2.4 GHz
    B. Avoid 40 MHz in dense 2.4 GHz deployments; stick to 20 MHz and 1/6/11 plan
    C. Change country code frequently
    D. Use proprietary extensions

  49. What is the purpose of Radio Resource Management (RRM) features in enterprise APs?
    A. Automate channel and power optimization, load balancing, and other RF planning tasks
    B. Encrypt client traffic end‑to‑end
    C. Replace DHCP servers
    D. Manage user passwords

  50. After performing a packet capture, how should you present findings to stakeholders?
    A. Raw pcap only with no notes
    B. Summarize key issues, show representative packet examples, include timelines, and provide prioritized remediation steps
    C. Verbally only with no documentation
    D. Share only vendor marketing materials


Answer Key and Short Explanations

  1. B — Management frames handle association and authentication procedures.
  2. D — A repeating narrow spike pattern usually indicates a narrowband interferer.
  3. A — Channels 1, 6, 11 avoid overlap in 2.4 GHz.
  4. B — No ARP replies often mean the destination is on a different VLAN/subnet or misconfigured.
  5. B — RSSI is a measure of received signal strength (often in dBm or arbitrary units).
  6. B — Lowering power on the closer AP reduces overlap and ping‑pong roaming.
  7. B — Duplicate ACKs generally indicate packet loss prompting retransmission.
  8. B — WPA2‑Enterprise with 802.1X provides per‑session keys and mutual auth.
  9. B — OFDM symbol rate is determined by subcarrier spacing and guard interval.
  10. B — Add or reposition APs to overcome attenuation from concrete.
  11. A — DFS avoids radar by vacating channels when radar is present.
  12. B — Directional patch antennas mounted to cover along the corridor provide uniform coverage.
  13. B — Use a spectrum analyzer to check for co‑channel/adjacent interference.
  14. B — CCA checks whether the medium is busy via energy or preamble detection.
  15. C — Beacon frames advertise SSID and supported rates periodically.
  16. B — Redundant RADIUS servers across data centers improve scalability and uptime.
  17. B — Packet capture tools show frame‑level details.
  18. B — WPA3‑SAE resists offline dictionary attacks better than WPA2‑PSK.
  19. A — Noise floor is reported in dBm.
  20. A — EIRP is transmitter power + antenna gain − losses (equivalent isotropic).
  21. A — Authentication then Association occurs during client join.
  22. B — Wider channels increase chance of overlap/interference in 5 GHz.
  23. B — Client‑sent deauth frames often indicate a deauth attack or client bug.
  24. A — Null Data frames are used for power management signaling.
  25. B — Reassociation/roam timers control retry behavior after disconnect.
  26. B — Very poor SNR, regulatory limits, or capability mismatches can force low rates.
  27. B — 802.11n supports 20 and 40 MHz channel widths.
  28. A — WMM with AC_VO priority is critical for VoWiFi QoS.
  29. A — RSN = Robust Security Network.
  30. B — Adaptive channel selection and power adjustments reduce interference.
  31. A — Bottlenecks often lie in wired backhaul, gateway, or client app issues.
  32. B — Hidden node: clients can’t hear each other but both to the AP, causing collisions.
  33. B — Airtime fairness allocates equal airtime (not throughput) among clients.
  34. A — Regulatory domain (country code) dictates channels and power limits.
  35. A — Multiple BSSIDs are normal for multi‑SSID or during roaming.
  36. A — Spectral mask specifies allowed out‑of‑band emissions.
  37. B — Channel utilization or busy time is reported as a percentage.
  38. A — Mesh path selection uses link quality, throughput, hops, and routing protocol.
  39. A — Cross‑polarization (vertical vs horizontal) reduces received power.
  40. A — Larger A‑MPDU reduces overhead but increases penalty if retransmission occurs.
  41. A — Microwave ovens produce broad continuous energy across 2.4 GHz.
  42. C — Aim for SNR ~20 dB or higher for reliable higher data rates.
  43. B — BSS Transition Management (802.11v) / Neighbor Report (802.11k) assist roaming.
  44. A — DTIM interval influences client wake/sleep behavior.
  45. B — Controller dashboards provide per‑client airtime and latency views.
  46. A — 4‑way handshake failures are typically credentials, mismatch, or blocked EAP traffic.
  47. A — 802.11ax adds OFDMA and improved MU‑MIMO for better multi‑user efficiency.
  48. B — Avoid 40 MHz in dense 2.4 GHz deployments; use 20 MHz and channels 1/6/11.
  49. A — RRM automates channel/power optimization, load balancing, and RF tasks.
  50. B — Present summarized findings, representative packet examples, timelines, and prioritized fixes.

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